Guest Posted August 16, 2014 Share Posted August 16, 2014 Dumb question. I don't think Cotter's question was that dumb. But no evidence that the chromosomal "abnormality" was not a chromosomal normality in an unsuccessful species. Downs is caused by an additional (3rd) copy of chromosome 21 (or a part thereof). It's difficult to see how an extra chromosome causing deleterious effects could ever be normal. Has the rate of Down's shown any increase or decrease over the centuries? I assume it has, given modern medicine and womean breeding at an older age. However, I think the current trend may be downward, as many parents opt to abort a fetus known to have Downs. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JDL Posted August 16, 2014 Share Posted August 16, 2014 I wasn't saying Cotter's question was dumb, I was saying that I was about to ask a question of my own from a lack of understanding. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Posted August 17, 2014 Share Posted August 17, 2014 ^ I know, but I liked my interpretation better. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JustCurious Posted February 18, 2016 Share Posted February 18, 2016 Well, at least the question of Down's Syndrome has been answered. http://www.bbc.com/earth/story/20160217-ancient-hobbit-was-not-human Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
norseman Posted February 18, 2016 Share Posted February 18, 2016 Saw that. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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