Guest Posted August 16, 2014 Posted August 16, 2014 Dumb question. I don't think Cotter's question was that dumb. But no evidence that the chromosomal "abnormality" was not a chromosomal normality in an unsuccessful species. Downs is caused by an additional (3rd) copy of chromosome 21 (or a part thereof). It's difficult to see how an extra chromosome causing deleterious effects could ever be normal. Has the rate of Down's shown any increase or decrease over the centuries? I assume it has, given modern medicine and womean breeding at an older age. However, I think the current trend may be downward, as many parents opt to abort a fetus known to have Downs.
JDL Posted August 16, 2014 Posted August 16, 2014 I wasn't saying Cotter's question was dumb, I was saying that I was about to ask a question of my own from a lack of understanding.
JustCurious Posted February 18, 2016 Posted February 18, 2016 Well, at least the question of Down's Syndrome has been answered. http://www.bbc.com/earth/story/20160217-ancient-hobbit-was-not-human
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